Gesenius’ Hebrew-Chaldee Lexicon has the following entry for “שָׁתַן shâthan:” For now, just notice that “piss” is no “mis-translation” on the part of the 1611 translators. We will get to all the various aspects of the matter. urinate:-piss.” In other words, “piss” is a valid translation of the underlying Hebrew text of the King James Bible Old Testament. Strong’s Hebrew and Aramaic Dictionary of the Old Testament has the following as entry #H8366: “שָׁתַן shâthan, shaw-than’ a primitive root (causatively) to make water, i.e.
![the j. geils band piss on the wall the j. geils band piss on the wall](https://i.etsystatic.com/20016377/r/il/20ea08/2972800590/il_1140xN.2972800590_hoc3.jpg)
![the j. geils band piss on the wall the j. geils band piss on the wall](http://3.bp.blogspot.com/_hddLTkUVdoI/TTF2EzUkgrI/AAAAAAAAB7c/Z-jHI6K-cBE/s1600/The%2BBand.jpg)
The phrase “pisseth against the (/a) wall” appears six times in the King James Bible. Is not “piss” slang and vulgar? How can God’s Word use it over and over again? Were the 1611 translators wrong for employing the term? And, how is “against a wall” related to all of this? Prepare for a Bible lesson, cultural insight, and some studies in etymology! Some genuine Bible-believing Christians, including myself, have stumbled over it for years. WHY DOES THE KING JAMES BIBLE SAY, “PISSETH AGAINST THE WALL?”Īny reader of the Authorized Version has encountered this phrase several times in the “Old Testament.” It is an object of criticism in the lips and pens of King James Bible critics.